An 80-year-old nursing home resident presents with marked abdominal distention, obstipation, and cramping lower abdominal pain. Plain radiograph reveals a dilated, ahaustral, U-shaped colonic loop arising from the pelvis and pointing to the right upper quadrant ('coffee-bean' sign). What is the initial intervention of choice if there are no signs of peritonitis or bowel necrosis?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Rigid or flexible sigmoidoscopy for endoscopic detorsion and rectal tube placement
- Step 1: The clinical scenario and radiographic 'coffee-bean' sign are diagnostic of acute sigmoid volvulus.
- Step 2: In stable patients without peritonitis, bowel gangrene, or perforation, the initial treatment of choice is endoscopic decompression and detorsion using rigid or flexible sigmoidoscopy, followed by placement of a rectal tube.
- Step 3: Elective resection is planned later due to high recurrence rates.
Answer
Rigid or flexible sigmoidoscopy for endoscopic detorsion and rectal tube placement.
Why not the others: 'Immediate open total proctocolectomy' is excessive surgical morbidity for uncomplicated sigmoid volvulus; 'Emergency Hartmann's procedure' is reserved for patients with bowel gangrene, perforation, or failed endoscopic detorsion; 'High-dose oral laxatives' are contraindicated in mechanical obstruction and risk perforation.
Practise more General Surgery and Surgical Emergencies.
Free questions with an explanation for every one, and full timed Egyptian Medical Licensing Examination (EMLE) mock tests.
More General Surgery and Surgical Emergencies questions
- A 22-year-old male presents with 12 hours of periumbilical pain that has migrated to the right lower quadrant, associated with nausea, low-g…
- A 48-year-old female presents with severe colicky right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right scapula following a fatty meal. Abdominal…
- A 55-year-old male presents with severe epigastric pain radiating directly to the back, vomiting, and a serum lipase level of 1,800 U/L (ref…
- A 30-year-old male involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision arrives hypotensive (BP 75/40 mmHg) and tachycardic (HR 135 bpm). Trache…
- Which classical sign of cardiac tamponade is defined by the triad of hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds?
- A 65-year-old male with previous abdominal surgeries presents with colicky abdominal pain, abdominal distention, bilious vomiting, and obsti…