A 65-year-old female presents with alternating constipation and diarrhea, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. Complete blood count reveals microcytic hypochromic anemia (hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL, ferritin 8 ng/mL). Fecal occult blood testing is positive. What is the most important next diagnostic investigation?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Complete optical colonoscopy

  1. Step 1: Analyze presentation: Unexplained iron deficiency anemia in an elderly patient must be presumed to result from gastrointestinal malignancy until proven otherwise.
  2. Step 2: Recognize tumor biology: Right-sided (cecal and ascending) colon carcinomas typically bleed occultly and present with fatigue and iron deficiency anemia before bowel obstruction occurs.
  3. Step 3: Confirm diagnostic modality: Complete colonoscopy allows direct visualization, localization, and tissue biopsy of colorectal lesions.
Answer
Complete optical colonoscopy.
Why not the others: 'Barium swallow' evaluates pharyngeal and esophageal swallowing disorders; 'Capsule endoscopy' is indicated only after colonoscopy and upper endoscopy have failed to find the bleeding source; 'Abdominal MRI' lacks the mucosal resolution and tissue biopsy capability of colonoscopy.

Practise more General Surgery and Acute Trauma Management.

Free questions with an explanation for every one, and full timed Jordanian Medical Licensing Examination (JMLE) mock tests.