A 62-year-old male presents with persistent substernal chest pressure for 2 hours. The ECG demonstrates 3 mm ST elevation in leads V1 through V4. What is the occluded coronary artery?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Left anterior descending artery

  1. Step 1: ST elevations in leads V1 to V4 indicate acute anterior wall transmural myocardial infarction.
  2. Step 2: The anterior wall of the left ventricle and anterior interventricular septum are supplied by the left anterior descending artery.
Answer
Left anterior descending artery.
Why not the others: Right coronary artery occlusion causes inferior STEMI in leads II, III, and aVF. Left circumflex artery occlusion typically causes lateral STEMI in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6. Left main coronary artery occlusion causes widespread ST depressions with ST elevation in aVR.

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