A 32-year-old male falls 4 meters from scaffolding landing on his feet. He complains of severe back pain. Plain lumbar radiographs show an L2 burst fracture. Physical examination demonstrates loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion, with preserved proprioception and vibration sense. What spinal cord syndrome is this?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Anterior cord syndrome

  1. Step 1: Anterior cord syndrome results from damage to the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord (affecting spinothalamic tracts and corticospinal tracts).
  2. Step 2: This causes bilateral loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation below the lesion, while the posterior columns (vibration and proprioception) remain intact.
Answer
Anterior cord syndrome.
Why not the others: 'Central cord syndrome' typically presents with greater motor weakness in the upper extremities than lower extremities following hyperextension injuries; 'Brown-Sequard syndrome' is a hemisection causing ipsilateral motor/vibration loss and contralateral pain/temperature loss; 'Posterior cord syndrome' selectively impairs vibration and proprioception.

Practise more General Surgery, Trauma and Emergency Resuscitation.

Free questions with an explanation for every one, and full timed National Health Regulatory Authority Licensure Examination (NHRA Bahrain) mock tests.

All General Surgery, Trauma and Emergency Resuscitation questionsTake a mock test

More General Surgery, Trauma and Emergency Resuscitation questions