A 58-year-old man has crushing chest pain, and the ECG shows ST elevation in V1-V4. Which artery is most likely occluded?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Left anterior descending artery
- Step 1: ST elevation in V1-V4 shows an anterior wall infarction.
- Step 2: The left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior wall and septum.
Answer
Left anterior descending artery.
Why not the others: 'Right coronary artery' usually causes inferior ST elevation in II, III and aVF; 'Left circumflex artery' usually affects the lateral leads I, aVL, V5-V6; 'Posterior descending artery' supplies the inferior wall and posterior septum.
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