A 25-year-old woman has a new episode of optic neuritis and MRI showing periventricular white matter lesions. What is the likely diagnosis?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Multiple sclerosis
- Step 1: Optic neuritis with periventricular lesions suggests demyelination.
Answer
Multiple sclerosis.
Why not the others: Guillain-Barré syndrome presents with ascending weakness.
Practise more Neurology.
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