A 5-year-old boy has periorbital oedema, albumin of 1.8 g/dL and proteinuria of 4 g per day, without haematuria. What is the most likely histology?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Minimal change disease
- Step 1: Minimal change disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and responds to corticosteroids. Answer: Minimal change disease. Why not the others: Membranous nephropathy, Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and IgA nephropathy don't fit.
Practise more Gastroenterology, endocrinology and nephrology.
Free questions with an explanation for every one, and full timed ENAM Practice (Peru National Medical Examination) mock tests.
More Gastroenterology, endocrinology and nephrology questions
- A 50-year-old man has burning epigastric pain relieved by food and a positive urea breath test. What is the appropriate treatment?
- A 45-year-old alcoholic man has abdominal distension, a tender abdomen and fever. Paracentesis shows 400 neutrophils per mm3. What is the di…
- A 35-year-old woman has fatigue, jaundice and elevated AST and ALT in the thousands after taking paracetamol in a suicide attempt. What is t…
- A 28-year-old woman has bloody diarrhoea, tenesmus and continuous mucosal inflammation starting at the rectum. What is the most likely diagn…
- A 40-year-old man has epigastric pain radiating to the back, serum lipase of five times normal and gallstones on ultrasound. What is the dia…
- A 24-year-old woman has polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting and a fruity breath. Glucose is 480 mg/dL with metabolic acidosis. What is the first…