A 45-year-old woman has palpitations, an ECG with a regular narrow complex tachycardia at 180 per minute and a stable blood pressure. What is the first manoeuvre?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Vagal manoeuvre
- Step 1: In stable supraventricular tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres are tried first, followed by adenosine. Answer: Vagal manoeuvre. Why not the others: Synchronised cardioversion, Intravenous amiodarone and Intravenous digoxin don't fit.
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