A 28-year-old woman has a right iliac fossa pain, a positive pregnancy test and an empty uterus. She is haemodynamically unstable. What is the next step?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Emergency laparotomy
- Step 1: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy with instability requires surgery. Answer: Emergency laparotomy. Why not the others: Methotrexate, Expectant management and Repeat ultrasound next week don't fit.
Practise more More surgery and emergency medicine.
Free questions with an explanation for every one, and full timed ENAM Practice (Peru National Medical Examination) mock tests.
More More surgery and emergency medicine questions
- A 40-year-old woman has a thyroidectomy and develops perioral tingling and carpopedal spasm on day two. What is the cause?
- A 50-year-old man after a total thyroidectomy has hoarseness. Which nerve is most likely injured?
- A 45-year-old man has a tender, red, fluctuant swelling on the forearm. What is the treatment?
- A 55-year-old diabetic man has a foul-smelling ulcer on the heel, with a probe to bone. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A 35-year-old man has a laceration contaminated with soil and his last tetanus vaccine was 12 years ago. What is the management?
- A 60-year-old man has painless haematuria. What is the most important investigation?