A 58-year-old man has crushing chest pain for 40 minutes. The ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which artery is most likely occluded?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The right coronary artery
- Step 1: ST elevation in II, III and aVF marks an inferior wall infarction. Step 2. The inferior wall is supplied by the right coronary artery in most people (right dominant circulation). Answer: Right coronary artery. Why not the others: Anterior infarcts show ST elevation in V1 to V4 (left anterior descending). Lateral changes in I, aVL, V5-V6 point to the circumflex. Left main occlusion produces widespread changes with shock.
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