A man has abrupt tearing chest pain radiating to the back, a 30 mmHg difference in systolic pressure between the arms, and a widened mediastinum. Blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg. While arranging CT angiography, what is the priority drug treatment?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Intravenous beta-blocker to lower heart rate and shear

  1. Step 1: The history and findings point to aortic dissection. Step 2. Reducing heart rate and blood pressure reduces aortic wall stress, and a beta-blocker is given first so vasodilators do not cause reflex tachycardia. Answer: Intravenous beta-blocker to lower heart rate and shear. Why not the others: Thrombolysis and anticoagulants are potentially fatal in dissection. Hydralazine alone causes reflex tachycardia and increases shear.

Practise more Cardiovascular medicine.

Free questions with an explanation for every one, and full timed UKMLA Applied Knowledge Test (MSRA-style single best answer) mock tests.