MOH Prometric · Clinical Practice & Patient Safety

Emergency Triage, Patient Safety and Clinical Procedures

59 practice questions, each with the answer and an explanation.

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Random questions from this topic, one at a time. You see the answer and the explanation straight after each one.

All 59 questions

  1. Under the Emergency Severity Index (ESI) five-level triage system, which patient situation warrants an immediate Level 1 categorization?
  2. According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), which route of administration is strictly prohibited for Potassium Chloride (KCl) concentrate due to catastrophic fatal cardiac arrest…
  3. A patient with a complete T4 spinal cord injury suddenly exhibits a severe pounding headache, diaphoresis above the injury level, profuse facial flushing, and a blood pressure of 210/110 mmHg with a h…
  4. What is the gold standard method for initial verification of correct placement of a newly inserted small-bore nasogastric (NG) feeding tube before initiating enteral feeding?
  5. According to the Parkland formula, how much Lactated Ringer's solution should be infused over the first 8 hours post-injury for a 70 kg adult patient with full-thickness burns covering 40% of Total Bo…
  6. According to CDC guidelines, what is the correct sequence for donning (putting on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  7. A nurse assesses a patient's peripheral IV insertion site and observes coolness, pallor, localized edema, and absent blood return with a sluggish drip rate. Which IV complication is present?
  8. Which clinical assessment finding is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of developing acute compartment syndrome in a limb following a closed tibial fracture?
  9. What is the recommended cannula size (gauge) when preparing to initiate a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in an adult patient to prevent mechanical hemolysis?
  10. A nurse observes continuous, vigorous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube drainage system connected to a patient. What does this finding indicate?
  11. Which nursing intervention is an evidence-based component of the central line insertion bundle designed to prevent Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infections (CLABSI)?
  12. A post-operative patient 24 hours after total thyroidectomy complains of tingling and numbness around the mouth (perioral paresthesia). Tapping over the facial nerve in front of the ear produces ipsil…
  13. What is the therapeutic serum concentration range for a patient receiving chronic Lithium therapy for bipolar affective disorder?
  14. Which pressure injury stage is defined by partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer or intact/ruptured serum-filled blister?
  15. What is the expected Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of an alert patient who opens eyes spontaneously, is fully oriented, and obeys motor commands promptly?
  16. What error in blood pressure measurement technique will produce a falsely elevated (higher than actual) systolic blood pressure reading?
  17. According to American Heart Association PALS resuscitation guidelines, what is the correct intravenous/intraosseous dose of Epinephrine (1:10,000 concentration) for pediatric cardiac arrest?
  18. Which clinical laboratory criterion distinguishes Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) from Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) in a severely hyperglycemic patient?
  19. Following a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via right femoral artery access, what is the essential nursing care action during the initial 4 to 6 post-procedure hours?
  20. Which transmission-based precaution must be initiated for a patient admitted with confirmed seasonal influenza or pertussis?
  21. Which dietary component must patients taking oral Warfarin (Coumadin) consume in consistent daily quantities to prevent dangerous fluctuations in their International Normalized Ratio (INR)?
  22. A patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter develops acute confusion, severe muscle weakness, tremors, and respiratory depression within 48 hours of feeding init…
  23. What is the recommended hand hygiene practice according to WHO guidelines when caring for a patient with active Clostridioides difficile diarrhea?
  24. Which medication is prescribed alongside chronic opioid analgesic therapy specifically to prevent opioid-induced constipation, an adverse effect to which patients do not develop tolerance?
  25. In an acute psychiatric inpatient setting, what is the primary initial nursing de-escalation intervention when interacting with an agitated patient exhibiting mounting pacing and clenched fists?
  26. Which clinical manifestation is a classic hallmark sign of left-sided heart failure resulting from elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?
  27. In a mass casualty incident using the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment system, a casualty is unconscious, apneic, but resumes spontaneous respirations after manual airway positioning. Which triage ca…
  28. Under the Emergency Severity Index triage algorithm, a patient presents with sudden severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and cold clammy skin. Which ESI triage level represents the correct categorization?
  29. During advanced cardiac life support for adult ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest, when is the first dose of epinephrine administered?
  30. An adult patient with symptomatic supraventricular tachycardia has a heart rate of 190 beats per minute with stable blood pressure. Following unsuccessful vagal maneuvers, what is the initial pharmaco…
  31. What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for two-rescuer basic life support in an infant?
  32. A conscious 9-month-old infant presents with sudden complete airway obstruction and cyanosis. Which physical maneuver is recommended?
  33. Which anatomical landmark is the preferred site for emergency needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax according to current advanced trauma life support protocols?
  34. In a patient requiring chest tube insertion for hemothorax, where is the chest drain safely introduced to avoid the neurovascular bundle?
  35. Which landmark is standard for proximal tibial intraosseous vascular access in an emergency resuscitation?
  36. A patient with refractory cardiac arrest has received two defibrillation shocks and epinephrine. Ventricular fibrillation persists. What antiarrhythmic drug and initial dose are indicated?
  37. During rapid sequence intubation, why is succinylcholine contraindicated in a patient who suffered severe full-thickness burns five days prior?
  38. Which reversal agent rapidly terminates rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade by direct chemical encapsulation?
  39. A patient undergoing lumbar puncture should have the spinal needle introduced between which lumbar interspaces to avoid the conus medullaris in an adult?
  40. What is the primary rationale for performing pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen prior to rapid sequence induction?
  41. A patient with symptomatic third-degree atrioventricular block exhibits hypotension and confusion. Which definitive emergency bedside pacing modality is indicated immediately?
  42. Which clinical assessment finding confirms correct endotracheal tube placement most reliably immediately after intubation?
  43. In managing adult hypovolemic shock due to trauma, what is the initial crystalloid fluid bolus volume recommended in resuscitation protocols?
  44. A triage nurse assesses a trauma patient with an open femur fracture, active bleeding controlled by a pressure dressing, pulse 88 bpm, and normal respirations. What START category applies?
  45. Which electrocardiographic rhythm is classified as shockable during adult cardiac arrest management?
  46. What is the recommended energy level for the initial shock when using a biphasic defibrillator for adult ventricular fibrillation?
  47. A patient in cardiac arrest has a capnography value showing an abrupt rise in end-tidal CO2 from 12 mmHg to 40 mmHg during chest compressions. What does this signify?
  48. During central venous catheter insertion in the internal jugular vein, which measure provides the greatest reduction in catheter-related bloodstream infections?
  49. What is the compression depth recommended for high-quality chest compressions in an adult during CPR?
  50. A patient with suspected cervical spine trauma requires airway management. Which manual technique is indicated to open the airway while maintaining spinal immobilization?
  51. In a patient with cardiac arrest, which ultrasound view is most useful during rapid pauses in CPR to rule out cardiac tamponade?
  52. Which reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity is treated with intravenous sodium bicarbonate?
  53. What is the primary indicator for stopping continuous transcutaneous pacing in a patient with severe bradycardia?
  54. A patient with acute anaphylactic shock presents with profound upper airway stridor. What is the immediate priority intervention?
  55. What is the maximum recommended time to interrupt chest compressions to check for a pulse or deliver a shock during resuscitation?
  56. A patient presents with a deep laceration on the volar forearm with arterial spurting. What is the first-line measure to achieve hemostasis?
  57. In a patient presenting with acute carbon monoxide poisoning, which diagnostic measurement provides the most accurate assessment of toxicity?
  58. Which emergency medication is indicated for torsades de pointes polymorphic ventricular tachycardia?
  59. A patient with traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure of 28 mmHg. Which osmolar therapy is effective for rapid reduction of elevated intracranial pressure?

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